What is the meaning of 1 Corinthians 9:10?

* The two F.O.G. Bibles & Commentary below are currently a work in progress.

Isn’t He actually speaking on our behalf? Indeed, this was written for us, because when the plowman plows and the thresher threshes, they should also expect to share in the harvest.

Berean Standard Bible (BSB)

or does he say it assuredly for our sake? Yes, it was written for our sake, because he who plows ought to plow in hope, and he who threshes in hope should partake of his hope.

World English Bible (WEB)

Or{G2228} saith he{G3004}{(G5719)} it altogether{G3843} for{G1223} our{G2248} sakes{G1223}? For{G1223} our{G2248} sakes{G1223}, no doubt{G1063}, this is written{G1125}{(G5648)}: that{G3754} he that ploweth{G722}{(G5723)} should{G3784}{(G5719)} plow{G722}{(G5721)} in{G1909} hope{G1680}; and{G2532} that he that thresheth{G248}{(G5723)} in hope{G1680} should be partaker{G3348}{(G5721)} of{G1909} his{G846} hope{G1680}.

Strong's King James

(10) Or is He certainly speaking because of us? Yes because of us! It's written because the one plowing should plow on hope and the thresher on hope of having a participating share.

The F.O.G*

[10] Isn't He actually speaking about us? Yes, this was written for us! When a farmer plows and a worker threshes, they should do so expecting to share in the harvest.

The F.O.G Paraphrase

or because of us by all means doth He say it? yes, because of us it was written, because in hope ought the plower to plow, and he who is treading ought of his hope to partake in hope.

Young's Literal Translation