Berean Standard Bible (BSB)
Now if perfection could have been attained through the Levitical priesthood (for on this basis the people received the law), why was there still need for another priest to appear—one in the order of Melchizedek and not in the order of Aaron?
World English Bible (WEB)
Now if there were perfection through the Levitical priesthood (for under it the people have received the law), what further need was there for another priest to arise after the order of Melchizedek, and not be called after the order of Aaron?
Strong's King James
If{G1487}{G3303} therefore{G3767} perfection{G5050} were{G2258}{(G5713)} by{G1223} the Levitical{G3020} priesthood{G2420},(for{G1063} under{G1909} it{G846} the people{G2992} received the law{G3549}{(G5718)},) what{G5101} further{G2089} need{G5532} was there that another{G2087} priest{G2409} should rise{G450}{(G5733)} after{G2596} the order{G5010} of Melchisedec{G3198}, and{G2532} not{G3756} be called{G3004}{(G5745)} after{G2596} the order{G5010} of Aaron{G2}?
The F.O.G *
(11) Now, if perfection surely was through the Levitical priesthood, for upon it the people found Torah, what further need was there for another priest to arise by the order of Melchizedek? And not told in accordance with the priestly succession of Aaron?
The F.O.G Message *
Young's Literal Translation
If indeed, then, perfection were through the Levitical priesthood—for the people under it had received law—what further need, according to the order of Melchisedek, for another priest to arise, and not to be called according to the order of Aaron?
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