What is the meaning of Galatians 3:21?

* The two F.O.G. Bibles & Commentary below are currently a work in progress.

Is the law, then, opposed to the promises of God? Certainly not! For if a law had been given that could impart life, then righteousness would certainly have come from the law.

Berean Standard Bible (BSB)

Is the law then against the promises of God? Certainly not! For if there had been a law given which could make alive, most certainly righteousness would have been of the law.

World English Bible (WEB)

Is the law{G3551} then{G3767} against{G2596} the promises{G1860} of God{G2316}? God forbid{G3361}{G1096}{(G5636)}: for{G1063} if{G1487} there had been{G1325} a law{G3551} given{G1325}{(G5681)} which{G3588} could{G1410}{(G5740)} have given life{G2227}{(G5658)}, verily{G3689} righteousness{G1343} should{G302} have been{G2258}{(G5713)} by{G1537} the law{G3551}.

Strong's King James

(21) Is The Torah-Law then contrary to the promise-vows of יהוה YAHWEH? Never ever! For if a Torah-Law had been given which was able to impart life then righteousness surely would be from Torah-Law.

The F.O.G*

[21] So is the law opposed to יהוה's promises? Absolutely not! If a law had been given that could impart life, then righteousness would certainly have come through the law.

The F.O.G Paraphrase

the law, then, is against the promises of God?—let it not be! for if a law was given that was able to make alive, truly by law there would have been the righteousness,

Young's Literal Translation