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For to which of the angels did God ever say: “You are My Son; today I have become Your Father”? Or again: “I will be His Father, and He will be My Son”?
Berean Standard Bible (BSB)
For to which of the angels did he say at any time, “You are my Son. Today have I become your father?” and again, “I will be to him a Father, and he will be to me a Son?”
World English Bible (WEB)
For{G1063} unto which{G5101} of the angels{G32} said he{G2036}{(G5627)} at any time{G4218}, Thou{G4771} art{G1488}{(G5748)} my{G3450} Son{G5207}, this day{G4594} have{G1080} I{G1473} begotten{G1080}{(G5758)} thee{G4571}? And{G2532} again{G3825}, I{G1473} will be{G2071}{(G5704)} to{G1519} him{G846} a Father{G3962}, and{G2532} he{G846} shall be{G2071}{(G5704)} to{G1519} me{G3427} a Son{G5207}?
Strong's King James
Because, who of the angelic messengers, did He ever say,
"YOU ARE MY SON,
TODAY I'VE BEGOTTEN YOU?"
And again,
"I WILL BE A FATHER TO HIM,
HE WILL BE A SON TO ME."
The F.O.G
[5] For to which of the angels did God ever declare, "You are My Son; today I have become Your Father"? Or again, "I will be His Father, and He will be My Son"?
The F.O.G Paraphrase
For to which of the messengers said He ever, ‘My Son thou art—I to-day have begotten thee?’ and again, ‘I will be to him for a father, and he shall be to Me for a son?’
Young's Literal Translation
Footnotes:
It is interesting how the author uses 2 Samuel 7:14: “I will be a Father to him.” This verse talks about God being a Father to David, but the very next line speaks about when he sins, which absolutely does not apply to Jesus. Thus, the author’s choice of quotation is intriguing and unconventional by modern biblical expositors’ standards. However, it highlights how the ancients read the Scriptures prophetically. They understood that one line could refer to one person or topic, and the very next line could shift to another.
The F.O.G Commentary:
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